BIOL 219 – The Living Cell: Chapters 12-14 Sample test

Suggested use. In my opinion, you will get the most out of this if you take it as if it were the real thing. Sit down, think of your answer, write it on a separate piece of paper, grade yourself when you are done. This way you are likely to get an idea of how you might do right now. Regardless of your performance, study afterwards. Read the reasoning behind the correct/wrong answers. If anything isn't clear, e-mail me or set up an appointment to discuss. Good luck! Click on the answer you think is most appropriate to see if you are right.

1. The similarity of the repeated sequences of the telomeres from species to species and the identical nature of these sequences in all vertebrates suggests what about their function?
a. Telomere function varies extensively from species to species.
b. Telomeres have highly conserved function in diverse organisms.
c. Telomeres have no real function.
d. Telomere function varies from cell to cell.
e. a and d

2. An operon in which the presence of a key metabolite, like lactose, causes the transcription of the structural genes is a(n) ________ operon.
a. noninducible
b. constitutive
c. inducible
d. repressible
e. irrepressible

3. The repressor of a repressible operon is _______ only if bound to a specific factor which functions as a(n) ________.
a. inactive, co-repressor
b. active, co-repressor
c. able to bind DNA, inducer
d. able to bind DNA, co-repressor
e. b and d

4. What level of control of gene expression is defined as regulating if a particular mRNA is actually used in protein synthesis and, if so, how long and for how long a period of time?
a. transcriptional-level controls
b. processing-level controls
c. translational-level controls
d. replication-level controls
e. a, b and c

5. What domain of a transcription factor regulates transcription by interacting with other proteins?
a. DNA-binding domain
b. activation domain
c. repression domain
d. DNA-unwinding domain
e. b and c

6. You attach the regulatory region for the renalin gene, a gene normally only active in kidney tissue, to the bacterial beta-galactosidase gene. The renalin gene is normally activated by a bHLH-containing transcription factor. You introduce the engineered gene into a transgenic mouse embryo. As the embryo develops, where can beta-galactosidase be seen?
a. evenly distributed throughout the embryo
b. in the limb buds and limbs
c. in the cells and tissues that will give rise to the kidney
d. in the cells and tissues that will give rise to the liver
e. c and d

7. In addition to being regulated by proximal and distal promoter elements, the expression of most genes is regulated by even more distant DNA elements called _____, which typically contain multiple binding sites for sequence-specific transcriptional activators.
a. enhancers
b. repressors
c. operators
d. activators
e. fluors

8. What is a function of the nuclear lamina?
a. It provides mechanical support for the nuclear envelope.
b. It is a point of attachment for the enzymes that synthesize histone.
c. It serves as an attachment site for chromatin fibers at the nuclear periphery.
d. It binds to ribosomes that are conducting protein synthesis.
e. a and c

9. What advantage may be gained from the slow movement of chromosomes toward the poles during mitosis?
a. It may cause the chromosomes to shorten.
b. It may increase gene expression from the chromosomes during mitosis.
c. It may decrease gene expression from the chromosomes during mitosis.
d. It may ensure that chromosomes segregate accurately without entanglement.
e. It may cause the chromosomes to lengthen.

10. Which of the following things happen during telophase?
a. The nuclear envelope reforms.
b. Chromosomes condense until they disappear from view under a microscope.
c. Chromosomes disperse until they disappear from view under the microscope.
d. The chromosomes pair up as they head toward the spindle poles.
e. a and c

11. A transport receptor that moves macromolecules from the nucleus to the cytoplasm is called a(n) ____.
a. exhalin
b. exportin
c. importin
d. transportin
e. receptin

12. When histone H1 has been removed from chromatin prior to being prepared for electron microscopy, what phrase below describes what investigators see in the resultant electron micrographs?
a. a coiled coil
b. beads on a string
c. a hollow tube
d. a windmill
e. a sunburst

13. Which DNA polymerase in bacteria is mostly involved in DNA repair to correct damaged DNA sections and removes RNA primers at the 5' ends of Okazaki fragments, replaces them with DNA?
a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA polymerase II
c. DNA polymerase III
d. DNA polymerase IV
e. a and c

14. If a mismatched base pair is found in a DNA double helix, how can one determine which member of the pair is incorrect?
a. The pair member in the new strand is the incorrect one.
b. The pair member in the old strand is the incorrect one.
c. In E. coli, the incorrect pair member is on the strand lacking methyl groups.
d. In E. coli, the incorrect pair member is on the strand containing methyl groups.
e. a and c

15. Which stage of mitosis begins with chromosomes aligned at the spindle equator in a plane with one chromatid attached by its kinetochore to a spindle fiber from one pole and the other chromatid attached to a fiber from the opposite pole?
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. prometaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase

16. Which of the following is (are) a function of telomeres?
a. Telomeres are required for complete replication of the chromosome.
b. Telomeres form caps that protect chromosomes from nucleases and other destabilizing influences.
c. Telomeres also prevent chromosome ends from fusing with one another.
d. a, b and c
e. a and c

17. You are studying two chromosomes, one (chromosome 10) which carries few genes and the other (chromosome 13), which is rich in protein-coding sequences, many of which are transcribed in the cells you are studying. Where would these chromosomes be likely to be located within the interphase nucleus?
a. Both chromosomes would be in the interior of the nucleus.
b. Both genes would be near the nuclear periphery.
c. Chromosome 10 would be in the nuclear periphery; chromosome 13 would be in the nuclear interior.
d. Chromosome 13 would be in the nuclear periphery; chromosome 10 would be in the nuclear interior.
e. Both chromosomes are uniformly distributed throughout the nucleus.

18. A section of a bacterial chromosome in which genes for the enzymes of a particular metabolic pathway are clustered together in a functional complex under coordinate control is called a(n) ______.
a. operator
b. operon
c. promoter
d. repressor
e. activator

19. An example of a place where facultative heterochromatin is found is ________.
a. the X chromosome in female mammals
b. the X chromosome in male mammals
c. a and b
d. telomeres
e. regions surrounding the centromeres of each chromosome

20. Why is localizing mRNAs in the oocyte more efficient than localizing the proteins they encode?
a. mRNAs are easier to move than proteins.
b. Each mRNA can be translated into a limited number of proteins.
c. Each mRNA can be translated into a large number of proteins.
d. mRNAs are easier to immobilize than proteins.
e. Localizing proteins would denature them.

21. What nucleotide sequence has been identified in the 3' UTR that binds to specific proteins that destabilize mRNA?
a. CCUCC
b. GGUGG
c. GGUCC
d. AUUUA
e. UAAAU

22. A(n) _________ occurs when all or a piece of a chromosome becomes attached to another chromosome?
a. translocation
b. duplication
c. inversion
d. deletion
e. b and d

23. Bacteria are grown in a medium containing 15NH4Cl for a number of generations so that all of the DNA is made of fully "heavy" DNA. The bacteria are moved to a new medium and grown in 14NH4Cl so that all new DNA will be light. After one generation time, what does the DNA look like?
a. All of the DNA is made of 2 "light" strands.
b. All of the DNA is made of 2 "heavy" strands.
c. All of the DNA is made of hybrids consisting of 1 "heavy" strand and 1 "light" strand.
d. Each strand is made of a mixture of "heavy" and "light" DNA.
e. Half of the DNA is made of 2 "light" strands and half of the DNA is made of 2 "heavy" strands.

24. Why are temperature sensitive mutants useful in studying essential processes like replication?
a. Temperature sensitive mutants of essential processes allow cells to be grown for continued study.
b. Non-temperature sensitive mutants of essential processes are difficult to grow for studies.
c. Temperature sensitive mutants are easier to understand.
d. Temperature sensitive mutants are much more efficient than other mutants.
e. a and b

25. Why is it necessary for an adult human to have tens of millions of cells undergoing cell division at any given moment?
a. to make excess structures
b. to replace cells that have aged
c. to replace cells that have died
d. to replace cells that are not needed
e. b and c

26. When do most of the preparations for mitosis occur, including such activities as DNA replication?
a. cytokinesis
b. M phase
c. interphase
d. telophase
e. enterophase

27. When G1 and S phase cells were fused together, the G1 nucleus began to replicate DNA when it was exposed to S phase cytoplasm in the fused cell. What conclusion was drawn from this result?
a. G1 phase nuclei contain diffusible factors that stimulate the initiation of DNA synthesis.
b. G1 phase cytoplasm contains diffusible factors that stimulate the initiation of DNA synthesis.
c. S phase nuclei contain diffusible factors that stimulate the initiation of DNA synthesis.
d. S phase cytoplasm contains diffusible factors that stimulate the initiation of DNA synthesis.
e. a and d

28. What postulates that the state and activity of a particular region of chromatin depends upon the specific modifications, or combination of modifications, to the histone tails in that region? It suggests that the pattern of modifications adorning the tails of the core histones contains encoded information governing the properties of the nucleosomes containing them.
a. the DaVinci code
b. the chemiosmotic hypothesis
c. the histone code
d. the genetic code
e. the endosymbiotic hypothesis

29. What follows are steps describing the series of reactions proposed to occur after binding of a transcriptional activator (such as the glucocorticoid receptor) to its enhancer on the DNA. Place them in the correct order.

1. The chromatin remodeling complex binds to the core histones at the target region.
2. Combined actions of various molecular complexes increases promoter accessibility to transcriptional machinery.
3. The activator recruits a coactivator to a region of chromatin targeted for transcription.
4. Transcriptional machinery assembles at the site where transcription will be initiated.
5. The coactivator acetylates the core histones of nearby nucleosomes.

a. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 - 5
b. 3 – 1 – 5 – 2 - 4
c. 3 – 5 – 1 – 2 - 4
d. 5 – 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
e. 3 – 5 – 1 – 4 – 2

30. In addition to binding cyclin, what else is required for Cdk activation?
a. phosphorylation at a critical threonine residue
b. removal of a phosphate group at a critical threonine residue
c. removal of a phosphate group from a key phosphorylated tyrosine residue
d. phosphorylation at the critical tyrosine residue at position 15
e. a and c